Oh well, being as we seem to have got into this discussion, we might as well pin it down.
(quote)Originally posted by rebelswin_85:
**(QUOTE)Originally posted by Martin Turner:
Without wishing to be overcritical, where does the 300 year figure come from?
I will take English, as it is the case with which I am most familiar, with some other instances as I know them.
Firstly, I was speaking of the progression of languages to the current date, from three hundred years ago. I realize that languages change with differing speeds dependant upon differing circumstances, however people are most familiar with recent history so it would be best to restrict ourselves to changes within that period and what influenced them. There are also modern factors that are more relevant to the discussion of a future or more-advanced society; for instance, I believe the outlook is better in many other nations but in America there is a growing sort of illiteracy, or at the least a dislike for reading, especially ignoring the great books of the past. Therefor it is possible that an American might be less able to understand M. Malory than a better-educated British denizen, or even, sad thought it might be, a bilingual French native.
Also, I think you are confusing the ability to read a language and the ability to communicate effectively in it. It is true that, with little training (and frequent reference to a glossary), I can read Chaucer. I presume, however, that you are familiar with Middle English pronunciation? That compounded with the difference in grammar and semantics would make it quite difficult, though admittedly not impossible, to understand a native speaker. And this is you or me. Assume that a more average Joe from the proverbial street, with no special interest or experience with language, were to encounter the same native Middle English person. I believe he would find it even more difficult. I remember someone on the B&B; board complaining that Edith Wharton's writing was too difficult for him to bother reading, and she wrote around the turn of the last century! While surely this stemmed more from a disinclination than an actual inability, it still shows what difficulty there can be in understanding a person from another era.
I'm not familiar with the Germanic languages, as I'm more of a Romance person. I have heard it said that the average French reader would find some challenge in reading the literature of the early 1700's, and going further back would be increasingly difficult.
I will admit that I'm not any sort of expert on this, only an interested amature. And an emerging one at that. I only know what I have been able to read and understand through my own studies.
Getting back to the plug: the main reason I used 300 years (I could have saved myself alot of trouble this way, but then we wouldn't've had this fascinating conversation) was because he specified that the civilizations had been separated by 300 years, therefor I thought it would be convenient to illustrate using that as an example. (post script: This is going to look amusing when I post right after Pace... anyone note the irony here?)
**(/quote)
Chaucer = 1390 = before the Great English Vowel shift = Middle English and therefore essentially incomprehensible to most modern people. Malory = 1490 = after the Great English Vowel shift = Early Modern English and therefore essentially comprehensible to most modern people. It's actually a lot easier to communicate with someone face to face than to understand them from their writings. I have colleagues in the next room who are perfectly lucid face to face but who write incomprehensible gunk. On the other hand, there are millions of people across the world who still read the King James Bible everyday, even though most of it was penned by William Tyndale in the 1570s.
As an example of the difference between Late Middle English (LME) and Early Modern English (ENE), here is the beginning of Genesis in John Wyclif's 1390s translation and in William Tyndale's 1570s:
John Wyclif:
1 In the bigynnyng God made of nouyt heuene and erthe. 2 Forsothe the erthe was idel and voide, and derknessis weren on the face of depthe; and the Spiryt of the Lord was borun on the watris. 3 And God seide, Liyt be maad, and liyt was maad. 4 And God seiy the liyt, that it was good, and he departide the liyt fro derknessis; and he clepide the liyt, 5 dai, and the derknessis, nyyt. And the euentid and morwetid was maad, o daie.
William Tyndale
1 1 In the begynnynge God created heaven and erth. 2 The erth was voyde and emptie and darcknesse was vpon the depe and the spirite of God moved vpon the water 3 Than God sayd: let there be lyghte and there was lyghte. 4 And God sawe the lyghte that it was good: and devyded the lyghte from the darcknesse 5 and called the lyghte daye and the darcknesse nyghte: and so of the evenynge and mornynge was made the fyrst daye.
If you leave aside the spelling which hadn't settled down at the time, and which wouldn't affect the pronunciation, Tyndale's is basically modern English. There are no words that we don't use now, and there is no syntax which we don't recognise today, although the final phrase would now be considered archaic or dialect. The Wyclif, on the other hand, contains words we don't have now, such as "clepide" (named), strong verb endings such as "borun", and syntax which is no longer in use, even as archaism: "Liyt be maad".
As it happens, we still have a very wide variation of syntax and vocabulary in UK dialects, some of which are more distant from standard modern English than William Tyndale's writing are.
Of course, the Wyclif is still more or less readable, though you would probably struggle with the less well known passages. Compare with something like Sawles Warde, from 1240, and it becomes a question of translation or learning a different language: Ure Lauerd i ţe godspel teacheđ us ţurh a bisne hu we ahen wearliche to biwiten us seoluen wiđ ţe unwiht of helle ant wiđ his wernches. (Our Lord in the gospel teaches us through a parable how we should warily prepare ourselves against the evil one of Hell and against his stratagems).
Back on topic - 300 years would be a fairly short time for a language to evolve if it were left on its own, but a language can change rapidly if it is in contact with other languages - consider the case of Afrikaans which is not much more than a century divergent from Dutch, and yet is reaching the point where mutal communication is as difficult as between Dutch and Frisian, which are separated by 1500 years. This is as a result of the influence of English and of various African languages (So there, Bokkie!).
Another interesting factor of language contact is the creation of new languages. Esperanto has never really worked because it's an unnatural attempt by a lot of clever people to create an international language. But Lingala in north central Africa, and Creole in the Caribbean are trade languages which are genuine mixtures from a variety of sources.
If, then, you made your colonists descendents of more than one linguistic group who were all lumped together, then you could have an entirely new language formed within fifty years, although it would still show elements of the origin languages. As a rule, creole's are grammatically relaxed and but can have highly sophisticated vocabularies.
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M A R T I N T U R N E R
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(This message has been edited by Martin Turner (edited 08-01-2004).)